I'm back again with more questions. I've been looking into the issue of financial support and I'm not sure if I'm getting a clear handle on this. What I gather is that the US fiance has to be at least somewhere between 100% - 125% above the poverty guideline to meet financial support eligibility. Is that all? If so, I have no problem whatsoever. How do my financial support obligations from my divorce play into this scenario? Is there a formula somewhere that I may need to look at? I have a professional license and have been in practice a good 17 years now, so I'm beginning to think that my worry about this issue is much ado about nothing. I'm such a noob.
DerekJ
